Do you agree that when one enters into a disadvantageous bargaining position because of one’s own voluntary acts

Do you agree that when one enters into a disadvantageous bargaining position because of one’s own voluntary acts (such as ignoring a warning) that an otherwise exploiting act becomes morally permissible because the person assumed the risk, or is the act always impermissible because the person is especially disadvantaged? Why, or why not? APA format References and citations

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