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After meeting with the client, she appears to prefer the risk/return tradeoff of the optimal portfolio rather than that of the optimal complete portfolio. What does that indicate about your initial assumptions regarding the indifference curve?

The risk/return trade-off of the optimal portfolio has a higher volatility than the optimal complete portfolio. The indifference curve shows the possible options regarding the relationship between reward and risk. We selected the optimum point where our investor perceives the indifference curve as the curve where one should select having maximum return. In essence, she’s lowered her risk aversion and is now willing to take on a more risky portfolio. I need someone rephrase the answer very easy work

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